Answer:
Option C
Explanation:
The angular momentum L of the particle is given by
$L=mr^{2}\omega $ where $ \omega =2\pi n$
$\therefore$ Freequency n= $\frac{\omega}{2\pi}$
Further $i= q\times n= \frac{\omega q}{2\pi}$
Magnetic momemt , $M=i A= \frac{\omega q}{2\pi}\times \pi r^{2}$
$\therefore$ $M= \frac{\omega q r^{2}}{2}$
So, $\frac{M}{L}= \frac{\omega q r^{2}}{2mr^{2}\omega}=\frac{q}{2m}$