Answer:
Option D
Explanation:
Consider the function f defined by
$f(x)=a_{0}\frac{x^{n+1}}{n+1}+a_{n}\frac{x^{n}}{n}+....+a_{n-1}\frac{x^{2}}{2}+a_{n} x$
since, f(x) ia a polynomial , so it is continuous and differentiable for all x. f(x) is continuous in the closed interval [0,1] and differentiable in the open interval (0,1).
Also, f(0)=0
and
$f(1)=\frac{a_{0}}{n+1}+\frac{a_{1}}{n}+....+\frac{a_{n-1}}{2}+a_{n} =0$ [say]
i.e, f(0)= f(1)
Thus , all the three conditions of Rolle's theorm are satisfied . Hence , there is atleast one value of x in the open interval (0,1)
where f '(x)=0
i.e, $a_{0}x^{n}+a_{1}x^{n-1}+a_{n}=0$