Answer:
Option A
Explanation:
We have
$\sim p \vee (q\rightarrow\sim r)$
$\sim p \vee (\sim q\vee\sim r)$ $[\because p\rightarrow q=\sim p \vee q]$
$\sim p \vee \sim (q\wedge r)$
$\sim (p \wedge (q\wedge r))$
$\therefore$ $\sim (\sim (p \wedge (q\wedge r))$
$p\wedge (q\wedge r)$