Answer:
Option B
Explanation:
according to question , peak value of current
$l_{0}=\sqrt{2}\times l_{rms}=\frac{2}{\pi}A$
Coefficient of mutual inductance =1H
as, we know induced emf in secondary coil is given by
$E_{s}=M.\frac{dl}{dt} $ [ where , l= l0 sinωt]
$E_{s}=M.\omega l_{0}\cos (\omega t)$
= $1\times 2\pi\times50\times\frac{2}{\pi}\cos(2\pi\times50\times t)$
$(\therefore\omega=2\pi n)$
For t=0, we have
Ee = 4 x 50=200 V