Answer:
Option D
Explanation:
Force = Mass $\times$ Acceleration = $m\omega^{2}R$
and given , $ F\propto\frac{1}{R^{n}}\Rightarrow F=\frac{k}{R^{n}}$
So, we have
$\frac{k}{R^{n}}=m (\frac{2\pi}{r})^{2}\times R$
$T^{2}=\frac{4\pi^{2}m}{k} R^{n+1} \Rightarrow T\propto R^{\frac{n+1}{2}}$