1) The boolean expression ∼(p∨q)∨(∼p∧q) is equivalent to A) ∼p B) p C) q D) ∼q Answer: Option AExplanation:Key Idea De- Morgan's and distributive law We have ∼(p∨q)∨(∼p∧q) = (∼p∧∼q)∨(∼p∧q) [ ∴ By De-Morgan's law] ∼(p∨q)=(∼p∧∼q) ≡∼p∧(∼q∨q) [ By distributive law] ≡ ∼p∧t [ ∼q∨q=t] ≡ ∼p