Answer:
Option B
Explanation:
We have f(x)=∣log2−sinx and g(x)=f(f(x)),xϵR
Note that , for x→0,log2>sinx
f(x)=log2−sinx
⇒g(x)=log2−sin(f(x))
Clearly g(x) is differentiable at x=0 as sin x is diffenerntiable
Now g′(x)=−cos(log2−sinx)(−cosx)
=cosx.cos(log2−sinx)
⇒g′(0)=1.cos(log2)