1) The statement $\sim (p\leftrightarrow \sim q)$ is A) equivalent to $ p\leftrightarrow q$ B) equivalent to $\sim p\leftrightarrow q$ C) a tautology D) a fallacy Answer: Option AExplanation: $\sim (p\leftrightarrow \sim q)$ is equivalent to $ p\leftrightarrow q$
