Answer:
Option A
Explanation:
Decrease in mechanical energy = Work done against friction
$\therefore$ $\frac{1}{2}mv^{2}-\frac{1}{2}kx^{2}=\mu ,mgx$
or $v=\sqrt{\frac{2\mu mgx+kx^{2}}{m}}$
substituting the values , we get
$v=0.4 ms^{-1}=(\frac{4}{10})ms^{-1}$
$\therefore$ answer is 4