Answer:
Option C
Explanation:
Suppose total number of men $=x$
$x$ men can work a job in $60$ days
$x$ men can work $\frac{1}{60}$ job in $1$ day
$1$ man can work $\frac{1}{60x}$ in 1 day ------(1)
$x+8$ can do the same job in $50$ days
Similarly, $1$ man can do $\frac{1}{50(x+8)}$ job in $1$ day ------(2)
from (1) and (2), $\frac{1}{60x}$ $=\frac{1}{50(x+8)}$
Solving the equation, $x$ = 40 men.
